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ASIAMS.NET |
POLL & COMMENTS
COMPARING ASIAN NATIONALITIES
(Updated
Wednesday, Jan 22, 2025, 06:39:09 AM
to reflect the 100 most recent valid responses.)
Which Asian nationality possesses the most attractive physical traits?
Chinese |
27%
Corean |
23%
Filipino |
15%
Indian |
8%
Japanese |
13%
Vietnamese |
14%
Which Asian nationality possesses the most appealing personality traits?
Chinese |
31%
Corean |
16%
Filipino |
17%
Indian |
6%
Japanese |
17%
Vietnamese |
13%
This poll is closed to new input.
Comments posted during the past year remain available for browsing.
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WHAT YOU SAY
[This page is closed to new input. --Ed.]
Hafti,
I have some interesting facts for you. It has nothing to do with earwax, or eating dogs, dragons and goblins, or any of that screwed up stuff in your previous posts. It has to do with Asian eyes.
I read an article written by a Polish scientist on how to identify whether an Asian is Chinese, Japanese, Corean, or whatever. The degree (geometrically speaking) of one's eyes says it all. For instance, Chinese eyes are normally slanted between 15-20 degrees +/- 0.1 degress. The thickness vary from 1/4 inch to 1/2 inch depending on age. Japanese eyes are slanted from 2-10 degress +/- 0.1 degree, with thickness ranging from 1/8 of an inch to 1/4 inch. +/- 0.2 inches.
Check out the site:
www.univofwarsaw.edu/asian/studies/eyes.culture.*45356.html
Pretty cool huh?
You know what I am going to do? I am going to patent me an "eye gauge" which will enable me to measure a dude's eye and tell what he is.
Korean Dude   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 10:04:40 (PDT)
   [216.37.128.1]
'Gansu, even to this day, is an arid place that is a hub of minority ethnic groups. '
sean, it is not certain i gansu in the past was such the same place.
i guess some people think you standpoint lack validity because you don't have the source or you don't have enough examples to back them up. surely i'd much appreciate if you can provide reliable sources. anyone cansay everything they want in the internet.
if not, that's all good. the discussion still moves along.
not that i want to pick up a fight or rain on your parade, though.
peace.:)
tdot: i'm just curious. about how many percent of filippino are mixed w/ spanish, chinese, japaanese,etc...some people say it's 1 % or 10 % but quite a few make it seem like Philippines is a total melting pot. just curious.. no ulterior mtive whatsoever.
k   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 01:32:46 (PDT)
   [203.162.16.178]
This link supports my statement that the hairy Mongolid strain is as normal/pure-bred as the one with less body-hair:
www.dai3gen.net/epage0
So now it should be clear that there are also some "other" people having the "right" to call themselves pure-bred Mongolid.
rare stuff   
Tuesday, September 03, 2002 at 21:19:45 (PDT)
   [62.158.90.92]
k,
I'm not talking about hirsute atavisms, just about the avarage type of body-hair, which is significantly less than that of most Caucasoids, but more abundant than among common East Asians.
Usually everybody does research for his own kind, me too. I'm specializing in hairy Asians (not the hirsute one to whom you might refer). Not to mention that my researches are not restricted to the Caucasoid/Melanesian parts of Asia at all.
As for Ainus, I can admit that I have also seen few photos of Ainu individuals resembling Melanesian, or better, Vedda type (of Sri Lanka). I'm usually not referring to that strain which must be one of the very oldest in Asia since we Mongolids pushed them finally out to nearly extinction in most areas.
Nonetheless, I'm quite surprised that you associate Melanesians and even Austronesians with body-hair. Certainly, Melanesians are relatively hairy, but they likewise include individuals with no body-hair. As for Austronesians, there are as few hairy Austronesian tribes (Timorese, Cham...) as there are hairy Northern Mongolid tribes.
rare stuff   
Tuesday, September 03, 2002 at 18:45:56 (PDT)
   [193.159.24.17]
My question to the Filipinos in this forum or to those who just know the answer--
I know that the Philippines was a Spanish Colony for 4 centuries like most of Latin America, but how come it did not adopt the Spanish language like most of Latin America? What made them speak Tagalog instead? I know there are several Spanish words in the Tagalog language but when exactly was this language created? Did this language come out of Spanish just as Creole came out of French? Or did it exist before the Spaniards came?
hmmm...   
Tuesday, September 03, 2002 at 17:35:53 (PDT)
   [206.215.75.216]
Although the Filipinos suffered under both the Spanish and the American control, it can be said that they suffered more under the Spanish authority. When the Philippines was a Spanish colony, there was no freedom of religion, and only the upper class elite were able to go to school. When the Americans came they set up free public school education and allowed for freedom of religion. People were allowed to move up through education during the American times. In the Spanish times, you had to be a mestizo in order to move up in the social ladder.
messed up   
Tuesday, September 03, 2002 at 17:25:41 (PDT)
   [206.215.75.216]
To, Sean;
The distribution of certain mutations amongst a population over time is GREAT. Look at a whole bunch of great examples like Sinodonty, something like 90% of chinese who go to dentists have sinodonty. This is a mutation which helps the chinese eat with stronger teeth.
I know that throughout a certain mutation won't be 100%, but it exists, and usually after thousands of years it is pretty widespread.
Your talking like i support the multiple origin theory. I believe that we all at one point go back to africa, and at one point were part of a mass migration to get where we are.
The thing i was arguing about is if the modern chinese are more Yueh or more Han. There are certain indications like genetics which support this.
You say i have 'fractured' logic. Please show me some sources to what you are saying. Where's the source to support your 50% of the northern population were nomads and such.
And think of it like this, you say that we all have the same genes. Then why do you insist that the differences between the north and the south is because of the nomads? Wouldn't it have been the same anyways through what your saying? We all contain the same genes. If the differences aren't so great, then why did you bring up that the differences are brought up because of the northerners probably have nomadic ancestry. Why don't you think that the differences might be that the southerners stayed isolated from the north for a while, giving enough time for the Yueh or any other group to adapt and change to their environment, giving enough differences in the genes to tell the difference from one group to the other if data is analyzed correctly.
Funny that you contradict yourself so greatly. Oh the north was filled with nomads, that's the reason for the differences. But you say that we all share teh same genes anyways, so why would it make such a big difference? The nomads and han are subgroups of the same race and also at one time probably also was one of the same group who migrated to asia. So if they mix the genes would still be the same, only different variations. We're still related, so are the south. So why emphasize that the north was nomadic? Because you don't know what your saying. Using one theory to back up one point of yours, while using another which contradicts your first to protect another.
The truth is that there are differences, and you know that, and that is why you brought up that little FYI of yours where 50% of the northern population of china was once nomadic. You know that there are differences. So stop trying to make yourself sound smart, because at the end your only contradicting yourself.
Here are some quotes by you:
"Historical records show that various non-Chinese groups in large numbers were Sinified in successive waves and together the effect could be as large as 50% or even greater of foreign ancestry for northern Chinese."
See from that everyone know that you believe in differences in genes, and that it can be traced to different ancestors. I was only tracing southern ancestry to the Yueh.
"All the genes of the human population are shared by every people, only the frequencies differ."
I don't even know why you brought that up since you brought the above up. I know that at one point we are all related, i was seeing if the south is more related to the ancient Yueh or the ancient Han of the north. So far through genetics it shows that the people are indeginous by all means, historically and genetically. If you go more far back, the northern chinese and southern chinese would be part of the same group still moving into asia by way of SE Asia. What i was doing is to try to make it evident that the southerners, and it's neighbors came from the SOUTHERN ancestry of Yuehs.
Simple?
Hafti   
Tuesday, September 03, 2002 at 17:12:22 (PDT)
   [142.59.36.71]
"Human immunoglobulins have structural differences. These differences can be used as genetic markers for population genetics. One of these markers Gm is in immunoglobulin G H (heavy) chain. These genetic markers are inherited in fixed combinations termed Gm haplotypes."
http://home.i1.net/~alchu/hakka/toihak0.htmWhen i said that our genes are different i meant in that way. In frequency i was refering to HLA studies."
Hafti, first of all, I was the one who brought up frequencies, not you. Don't take my position after I've argued it.
2nd, HLA is different from Gm haplotypes.
3rd, in your own quote, it states clearly that there are no Yueh genes or Han genes. Both tests deal with frequencies of genes and the arrangement of the same pool of genes in different patterns. Also from your own source," One is northern group
which is characterized by high frequency of Gm ag and Gm ab3st and extremely low frequency of Gm afb1b3 haplotype, and the other one southern group characterized by a remarkably high frequency of Gm afb1b3 and a low
frequency of Gm ag and Gm ab3st." This is exactly what I have been saying all along. You keep shifting the focal point of your argument. At least now we can agree and start discussing how this can be.
4thly, conclusions from data goes through several layers. 1. Determining the data and the method to study. 2. collecting the data. 3. Creating models and formulas to analyze the data. 4. Interpreting the results (The same data can be used as arguments on both sides, a common happening in science and everything else, for example, the OJ trial). After each layer, more subjectivity is added so that different studies can come up with different results. You can go to the brinkster race calc. site to see that the same haplotype method shows south and north Chinese to be closest to each other. There will be anomalies also, where, lets pretend, a clearly SE Asian type, for example a Javanese ethnic group, will show up to be more related to Koreans than Chinese.
My point is that when it gets to you as the 5th layer, the info. that you type has become so degraded that it's basically worthless, no offense.
(Your site is an ideologically biased site, by the way. Doesn't mean the science is wrong, but stop getting your information from race-theory internet sites. At a certain point, their credibility converges with the that of neo-Nazi race studies sites.)
Sean   
Tuesday, September 03, 2002 at 13:18:44 (PDT)
   [68.14.94.53]
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