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GOLDSEA |
ASIAMS.NET |
POLL & COMMENTS
COMPARING ASIAN NATIONALITIES
(Updated
Wednesday, Jan 22, 2025, 06:39:09 AM
to reflect the 100 most recent valid responses.)
Which Asian nationality possesses the most attractive physical traits?
Chinese |
27%
Corean |
23%
Filipino |
15%
Indian |
8%
Japanese |
13%
Vietnamese |
14%
Which Asian nationality possesses the most appealing personality traits?
Chinese |
31%
Corean |
16%
Filipino |
17%
Indian |
6%
Japanese |
17%
Vietnamese |
13%
This poll is closed to new input.
Comments posted during the past year remain available for browsing.
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WHAT YOU SAY
[This page is closed to new input. --Ed.]
i guess my point was kinda a bit blown out of proportion.
being hairless is a stereotypical mongoloid trait. Does that really mean a korean who has abundant body hair is not mongoloid? Or ALL who are east asians have very little hair body? NO. just like the dry earwax, it's a stereotypical attribute but NOT necessarily an indicator or anything like that. THEre IS a difference.
the end.
k   
Thursday, September 05, 2002 at 01:56:20 (PDT)
   [203.162.132.162]
rarestuff:
what i'm saying is classical Ainus aren't reaally classified as mongoloid.
the certain thing is there would always be exceptions so there sure are hirsute asian. never did i say one is asain so he is hairyless and vice versa. i remeber talking about this in the forum so i'm not gonna harp upon it again next time.
k   
Thursday, September 05, 2002 at 01:17:04 (PDT)
   [203.162.132.162]
hmmm,
I am not an expert, but from what I know, the Phillipines was already densely settled when the Spaniards landed there.
And, the Spaniards did not really immigrate there as much as they did in the Latin Americas.
Tagalog is pretty much a Malayan tongue with many Spanish loan words.
Jeff   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 23:34:14 (PDT)
   [64.130.235.33]
k,
You are right. In fact, both Gansu and Xinjiang were more fertile than they are now. You can find this in the famous cave paintings (Dunhuang) the proof of this. This was where the Silk Route traffic passed through.
In Xinjiang, they have found numerous abandoned towns (Cherchen, Loulan, etc.) where the native Indo-Europeans and Han/Tang Chinese lived, traded and intermingled.
All this declined during the subsequent Turkish (Uigur) and Mongols invasions. The Mongols committed a grand genocide against the Tanguts-Xixia (who ruled in Gansu region).
Jeff   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 23:30:10 (PDT)
   [64.130.235.33]
The source for the Haplotype info. is http://hpgl.stanford.edu/publications/AJHG_1999_v65_p1718.pdf
Sean   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 20:45:21 (PDT)
   [68.14.94.53]
Ok Hafti, I 'm going to entertain you again, hopefully for the next to last time because I 'm getting tired of this with you.
"Haplotypes Are Not Genes, And What They Really Mean Part I"
There is a recent, probably most extensive (a collaboration of Chinese and American research institutions with lots of samples) study done of haplotypes derived from studying the Y-chromosome.
They identified 17 haplotypes, probably only a minute portion of all the ones in the Y-chromosome. Haplotype 1, or H1, is shared by chimps and humans, and is the most ancient haplotype. H2 occurs in both African and non-African populations. H5 is shared by all non-African populations but not Africans. And blah blah.
Eight haplotypes are Asian-specific, H6-H13.
H6,7,8 share a T->C (DNA letters) mutation at locus M122. This suggests that the three are derived originally from the same haplotype. What gets weird from here is that while SE Asians have all the Asian-specific haplotypes, north Asians show only a subset of these Asian haplotypes. For example, SE have all three of the related trio H6,7,8 and NE Asians only has H6 and H8. This suggests that a specific population with a lack of H7 migrated from south to north. (We both agree this is very likely) If the northward population was a single ethnic group/tribe/breeding population, which is unlikely, it would be related most closely to its mother population in SE Asia. The Offspring and Mother populations would be more related to each other than the Mother population is related to other rival SE populations, even though the haplotype profiles would separate the Mother and Offspring populations into two camps, with the Mother population grouped with her Sister populations.
Also, if the northward migration were of various ethnic/breeding populations (with numbers too small to carry all of the Asian haplotypes), then each northern Offspring population would be more related to its respective Mother Populations in the South than to each other. However, the Offspring populations would all be grouped on one side of the canyon and the Mothers are the other side.
I hope you read this carefully, Hafti, because I'll follow up with Part II and what it all means.
Sean(I never thought I'd be posting this stuff with the nerdiness of a Trekie..sad)   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 20:43:51 (PDT)
   [68.14.94.53]
"Look at a whole bunch of great examples like Sinodonty, something like 90% of chinese who go to dentists have sinodonty. This is a mutation which helps the chinese eat with stronger teeth."
Hafti, Sinodonty is not a gene but a profile. Also, I think the majority of Southern Chinese have Sundadonty because the line of separation is in the middle of China. Also, Sinodonty is composed of a collection of characteristics such as "high frequencies of incisor shoveling, double shoveling, 3-rooted first molars, lower first molar 6" (http://dissertation.com/pdf-b/1120117b.pdf).
Each characteristic may or may not be present in an individual. It is these characteristics together in the overall population that is deemed Sinodonty. These characteristics doesn't have to be even the majority in the population. "What kind of frequencies are observed? Three-rooted lower first molars are reported in 25-40% of Eskimo-Aleuts and 6% for most North American Indian groups" (http://www.uic.edu/classes/osci/osci590/10_1Non-Metric.htm).
You have to be specific about what you mean by 90% of Chinese having Sinodonty and where you get the figures from.
Sean   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 19:35:54 (PDT)
   [68.14.94.53]
Hafti,
You are putting words in my mouth.
"Funny that you contradict yourself so greatly. Oh the north was filled with nomads, that's the reason for the differences."
I never said this. All I said was that the Northern Chinese ancestry is greatly nomadic. I mentioned this, I think, not in relation to your posts but to the posts of someone else. This is different issue from your thing with the genes. The north Han Chinese could've had the same genes with the nomads, different, or in-between. Those are possibilities and I nor anyone else has any way of knowing for sure. We can only imply from circumstantial evidence. You've mangled the two topics together and I say again, it is really impossible to have an objective discussion with you. You keep switching your stands and your subjects. One day it's Yueh genes, then you say you meant frequencies and haplytypes (which was my point), then it's off to teeth again.
I will only answer your points one at a time, if at all, because you always let out a slobbering mess of fractured, schizoid topics...Negritos, Sinodonts, HLA and Haplotypes, feet.....
Sean   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 19:12:43 (PDT)
   [68.14.94.53]
i dunno why a lot of filipinos proudly say that we have Spanish blood. Yes, many Filipinos have Spanish blood but you know why? Because those damn Spaniards went from town to town raping native women. Many of these Spanish men were friars/ members of the church/priests. Imelda Marcos, for example, is a great grand daughter of a Spanish friar.
bastards...
lapu-lapu   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 17:42:52 (PDT)
   [67.248.64.169]
messed up,
Your assumption is incorrect. In order to move up in Philippine colonial society, you had to have money. There were many native Filipinos who held prestigious positions. The only thing native Filipinos were banned from was leadership in the military, the clergy, and positions higher than provincial governor. In fact, Philippine-born Spaniards had the same limitations as native Filipinos.
T dot O in 2k3   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 17:22:14 (PDT)
   [172.162.73.143]
"i guess some people think you standpoint lack validity because you don't have the source or you don't have enough examples to back them up. surely i'd much appreciate if you can provide reliable sources. anyone cansay everything they want in the internet."
Look buddy, everything I said is history. Is it that hard for you to go to the library and check out books on Chinese history? I read a lot of that stuff in my "finding my identity" phase and I can't remember the titles and authors and such. I'm sorry but my life is not boring enuff for me to go to a library, check out books, and copy the sources for you. All the stuff I said is not far out or secret info. You should be able to back it up easily if you do some harding reading with detailed books, not articles in an encyclopedia. I type with the certainty that I got my info from various reliable sources. This is why I can confidently say that some of your, not all, opinions are gotten from impressions, vague ideas, and assumed notions. No offense, sometimes our own views are wrong. That's why there are books out there to inform us. The best way to get informed is not from this site full of bullshiters, but actually doing the research.
I 'm not arguing from my own point of view but merely stating historical facts. I 'm not certain whether the first Chinese were genetically closer to the modern north Chinese or the south Chinese or in-between. What I do knwo for certain is that northern Chinese has large bulk of its ancestors in northern Altaic-speaking nomads, as the south has great influences from its pre-Chinese population. All of my info. comes from valid sources, not wacked out internet sites. Anyway, it's like asking me to prove that Napoleon was the emperor of France when it is a historical fact agreed upon by all. Gansu was never part of the center of Chinese civilization, nor was it ever wholly Chinese. I hope this closes the book on this subject.
Sean   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 17:11:18 (PDT)
   [68.14.94.53]
hmmm,
Don't let Filipino-Americans fool you. TAGALOG IS NOT THE LANGUAGE OF THE ARCHIPELIGO. The official language of the Philippines is "Filipino". Filipinos have been severly brain-washed by government propaganda. "Filipino" is nothing more than a lab experiment created during the American Commonwealth. It is a Tagalog based dialect (with loan words from other languages) created by the Manila government. It was developed to try to unite the entire 169 ethno-linguistic groups in the country. Only 20% of the population speaks it on a daily basis. I oppose "Filipino" vehemently for political and cultural reasons. There are creole languages called Chavacano which are spoken in some parts of the Philippines. It sounds like Spanish, but any spanish speaker will not be able to understand it.
There are 4 main factors why the Philippines is not a Spanish speaking country.
1. The number of Spaniards in the Philippines was reletively small compared to Latin America. When the Americans took over the islands there were only a total of 30 000 Spaniards on the islands. The Philippines was not a profitable colony. The most profitable Spanish colonies were Argentina and Cuba. Guess where all the Spaniards went?
2. The Spaniards conquered the islands because of "divide and conquer" tactics. Before the Spaniards came to the islands, war between different ethnic groups was common. Tagalogs and Capampangans were enemies. Illongos and Cebuanos were enemies. The Muslim sultan states of Mindanao use to raid other ethnic groups for slaves. The Spaniards refrained from teaching us Spanish because it would serve as a uniting force against them. That is how a handful of Spaniards were able to conquer most of the archepeligo
3. Spanish society in the Philippines was an elitist one. Only the rich could afford to send their children to school. When schools were widely established in the mid 1800's only a handful of the population learned Spanish.
4. In order for the Americans to pacify Filipinos after the Philippine-American war they had to promote anti-Spanish propoganda. This included ridiculing Spanish as a language. Gradually, the Spanish elite of the country adopted English. During the American period education was available to poor Filipinos so that is how English was spread.
There are other factors like the repatriation of wealthy Spaniards and mestizos to Spain after WWII, but these factors are minor.
t dot o in 2k3   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 17:11:14 (PDT)
   [172.162.73.143]
k,
I've stated that these statistics being thrown around are estimates. The Census taken during the American period was different from the Spanish census. Bi-racial categories were not included in the US census. The amount of racial mixture is small. In 1890, the total population of the islands was 5 million. According to the census there were 50 000 Filipinos of mixed Spanish ancestry. There were 120 000 of mixed Chinese ancestry. If you extrapolate that to today's population you can see that the # of mixed Filipinos would be small. The perception to why the Philippines is a mixed society is because the prominant figures in Philippine society have mixed ancestries. This is not a slight against native Filipinos, but if you look at middle class Filipinos and above you will realize the vast majority of them are mixed.
t dot o in 2k3   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 16:20:08 (PDT)
   [172.162.73.143]
To, Sean;
"Historical records show that various non-Chinese groups in large numbers were Sinified in successive waves and together the effect could be as large as 50% or even greater of foreign ancestry for northern Chinese."
Are you changing your point of views now? Now you said that i say that there is no difference between the Yueh and Han. All i said was that at one point, like every other race also, we probably migrated to asia through africa and have a common ancestry. So what i was saying was, if we can be traced to a certain group or not, not to the ultimate forefather. You seem to also believe that you can be traced to a certain group, hence the quote above from one of your posts. So why now just say that our differences are just differences? You specifically stated that the northerners have nomadic ancestry, and that could be what is different in us. But like you said, if it is just frequencies then it wouldn't matter so much from which group wouldn't it. But then why did you say the northerners have a nomadic ancestry? Because the differences are there, if small, it can still trace you back to a more specific group.
I was connecting the southerners to the Yueh, so what was wrong with that? You seem to be connecting the northerners with nomads. Same Same.
"3rd, in your own quote, it states clearly that there are no Yueh genes or Han genes."
Please 'quote' my quote please.
Hafti   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 15:20:12 (PDT)
   [142.59.36.71]
hmmm,
The reason why Filipinos is using Tagalog (or any other Philippine languages and dialects) instead of Spanish, is because they never did impart their language to the natives. Only the "peninsulares" (Philippine-born Spaniards) and pure breed Spaniards are allowed to go to schools and universities in the Philippines. In those days, if you are a Filipino-malay native you have no access to education, no right to own property, no right to vote, no right to have a day in court (if you are accused of a crime) and are banned to join or start any organization. In the Spaniard's mind, an educated Filipino is a dangerous individual that should be eliminated and destroyed.
Another thing, since the Philippines is an archipelago, Spain has to rule the country using the "divide and conquer" approach. For example, if a revolt occurs in the Central/Southern part of the Philippines (such as Cebu), the Spanish army sends troops from the North (such as Ilocos) to thwart the revolt. Since the natives doesn't understand each other's languages it is easier for the Spanish government to rule over them. That's why they don't want Filipinos to learn Spanish because once they have a common language to communicate, that will be the key in unifying the people against Spain.
Tagalog is language with a mis-mash of influences from Spanish, Chinese, English and Malay. It's rather hard to explain it's origins in a few short sentences, but if you want to know, try looking over the internet if there are books on Philippine languages and history. Hope I answered your question.
Anito   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 14:21:53 (PDT)
   [202.164.170.182]
To Hmm:
Tagalog is the language of the Manila area and it did exist before the Spanish came. There are hundreds of other dialects too.
Under the Spanish Empire, the Philippines was so far away that few Spaniards visited the islands. Only the missionaries, traders, and of course the Spanish armada went. Those that did go to the islands learned to speak the languages of the peoples in order to spread the Catholic religion.
At the same time, they intended to keep the filipino people ignorant by suppressing them and discriminating against them. As mentioned by another post, Spaniards, then Mestizos, were given the highest privileges in society. Everyone else was kept in the dark about the 'western civilized world.'
In most filipino dialects there are several spanish words here and there. This can be attributed to the natural tendency of people borrowing words from other cultures. Since the Spaniards had more control, many filipinos adopted many of their ways, such as food, clothing, language, and even mentality.
There is a Creole Spanish called Zambangueno which has mostly Spanish vocabulary and other words of indigenous or malay root. But to the Spanish-speaking person, it would probably be considered a 'bastard spanish' since the grammar is not Latin-based but Malay-based. Some words in the language are old-Spanish words from the 16th, 17th centuries that are still used today. Kinda like English using 'thou art, he cometh' etc.
Correct me if what I said is inaccurate. History in general is inaccurate and interpreted by spin doctors.
G.K.
G.K.   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 14:04:19 (PDT)
   [24.243.208.107]
Most Indians in all parts of India are pure Aryans. The Aryan invasion theory is a hoax and India. Iran and Central Asia (part of ancient Bharat) is where the Aryans came from. You can not seperate this region. India has a small population of Australoid people mainly tribals spread all over India. Also some Mongoloid people live on the borders of China etc. The first use of the word Aryan is from the Rigveda.
yayati   
Wednesday, September 04, 2002 at 13:49:56 (PDT)
   [195.93.32.9]
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